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NBME 17 Answers

nbme17/Block 0/Question#0 (reveal difficulty score)
59-year-old comes to the physician... lack of ...
Cerebellum ๐Ÿ” / ๐Ÿ“บ / ๐ŸŒณ / ๐Ÿ“–
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submitted by โˆ—cassdawg(1780)
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Looking at the symptoms, they fit with cerebellar issue, as the cerebellum is responsible for modulating movement and aiding in coordination and balance. [FA2020 p499]

She does not have paralysis or parasthesia but rather lack of control of movement, making injury to the cerebrum less likely. Further, her issues are not localized to the upper or lower extremity and do not fit with any syndrome of spinal cord. Ataxia is also typically a buzzword for associations with the cerebellum. In this case, her limb ataxia is likely from a metastasis to the left cerebellar hemisphere.

If you want to review:

Common brain lesions can be found FA2020 p511.

Spinal lesions can be found FA2020 p530.

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waitingonprometric  Also for completeness--this lesion is probably in a lateral hemisphere of the cerebellum. From FA "Cerebellar hemispheres are laterally located--affect lateral limbs." Lesions to the central portion of the cerebellum (vermis) usually cause "truncal" ataxia. +4
chaosawaits  Please, may this be the last time that I get a question wrong simply because I quickly misread between "cerebrum" and "cerebellum." +1



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submitted by โˆ—prostar(22)
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For the sake of completeness, this is paraneoplastic cerebellar degeneration due to breast cancer- Anti - Yo antibodies. (FA2019 Pg229)

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chj7  The question stem mentioned metastatic tumor, so I assume the metastatic lesion is directly compressing the cerebellum, and the cerebellar degeneration is not necessarily due to a paraneoplastic syndrome. +



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